Mark68

Christadelphian
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Mark68 last won the day on April 12

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About Mark68

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  • Birthday 07/18/1968

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  1. I've been reading that when Jesus says 'Son of Man coming in his kingdom': Matthew 16: 27-28 “For the Son of Man is going to come with his angels in the glory of his Father, and then he will repay each person according to what he has done. 28 Truly, I say to you, there are some standing here who will not taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom.” It was a fulfilment of this part of the prophecy in Daniel 7, wherein Jesus was given the kingdom (the word kingdom features heavily): Daniel 7: 9-10 9 As I looked, thrones were placed, and the Ancient of Days took his seat; his clothing was white as snow, and the hair of his head like pure wool; his throne was fiery flames; its wheels were burning fire.10 A stream of fire issued and came out from before him; a thousand thousands served him, and ten thousand times ten thousand stood before him; the court sat in judgment, and the books were opened.” Daniel 7: 13-14 13 “I saw in the night visions, and behold, with the clouds of heaven there came one like a son of man, and he came to the Ancient of Days and was presented before him. 14 And to him was given dominion and glory and a kingdom, that all peoples, nations, and languages should serve him; his dominion is an everlasting dominion, which shall not pass away, and his kingdom one that shall not be destroyed.” This was fulfilled when they saw Jesus resurrected, specifically, when: Matthew 28:18 And Jesus came and said to them, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me. I thought Daniel 7 was about the judgement in the Second Coming and the Transfiguration on the Mount was when they saw Jesus coming in his kingdom. Thanks all.
  2. I'm confused. Mark tells us John the Baptist fulfilled the prophecy given in Malachi Mark 1:2 As it is written in Isaiah the prophet, “Behold, I send my messenger before your face, who will prepare your way, 3 the voice of one crying in the wilderness: ‘Prepare the way of the Lord, make his paths straight,’” Malachi 3:1 “Behold, I send my messenger, and he will prepare the way before me. And the Lord whom you seek will suddenly come to his temple; and the messenger of the covenant in whom you delight, behold, he is coming, says the LORD of hosts. The Malachi prophecy says God will send Elijah: Malachi 4:5 “Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the great and awesome day of the LORD comes. But John the Baptist denies he is Elijah John 1:21 And they asked him, “What then? Are you Elijah?” He said, “I am not.” “Are you the Prophet?” And he answered, “No.” Also, I was told the verse "as it is written in the prophets" isn't found in the oldest and best Greek manuscripts, apparently they say "as it is written in Isaiah." Did scribes change this because the quotation is not from Isaiah, but from Ex.23: 20 and Mal.3: 1?
  3. Post deleted.
  4. Thanks Chris, I'll take a look at it.
  5. Thanks SDA
  6. I've got some issues with the census taken in and around the time of Jesus' birth. Luke 2: 1 In those days a decree went out from Caesar Augustus that all the world should be registered. 2 This was the first registration when Quirinius was governor of Syria. 3 And all went to be registered, each to his own town. 4 And Joseph also went up from Galilee, from the town of Nazareth, to Judea, to the city of David, which is called Bethlehem, because he was of the house and lineage of David, 5 to be registered with Mary, his betrothed,b who was with child. The Issues (1) There is no record nor apparent possibility of a census of the kind Luke describes (2) There is no record that Quirinius was governor of Syria at the time Luke describes Luke’s description of the census is difficult for three reasons: (a) no record of a singular, empire-wide census instituted by Augustus. (b) A Roman census would have required Joseph register not at his ancestral home in Bethlehem but in the principal city of his “taxation district,” presumably Galilee (not to mention, Mary would not have been obliged to go with him.) (c) Roman censuses were not administered in client kingdoms, such as Herod’s was. Also, Quirinius’ involvement with such a census is difficult for two more reasons. (d) Luke describes Jesus’ birth and the census as taking place during Herod the Great’s reign - a reign ended by Herod’s death in March/April of 4 B.C. (e) Luke describes both events as also taking place during the time when Quirinius was governor of Syria. --- I've researched online but to be honest, I'm just confused. Could someone please help me out or point me in the direction of a good online (layman's) source with which I might reconcile the above perceived issues, please, or could someone explain to me why the above isn't an issue? Thank you very much
  7. Ok so If they ate from the tree of life their eternal life would become immortality (a better form of living forever). If they ate from the tree of knowledge of good and evil, their eternal life would cease and they would start to die from that day onward I have a few questions Does the bible tell us Adam and Eve had to continue eating of a certain tree for their eternal life? If so, which tree? it can't be the tree of life because once they ate from that tree they'd live forever
  8. I was watching a video about hell not existing and one Christian argued it does. I'll paraphrase for brevity. The early Jews did not teach a fiery hell, however, I read this: "Sheol simply refers to the abode of the dead in general, not particularly the place of the punishment for the wicked. In fact, sheol was divided into two compartments, one for the righteous dead and one for the wicked dead." First the relevant verses from the Rich Man and Lazarus story: Luke 16: 23 And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments, and seeth Abraham afar off, and Lazarus in his bosom. 24 And he cried and said, Father Abraham, have mercy on me, and send Lazarus, that he may dip the tip of his finger in water, and cool my tongue; for I am tormented in this flame. 26 And beside all this, between us and you there is a great gulf fixed: so that they which would pass from hence to you cannot; neither can they pass to us, that would come from thence. The author then says: "First, we see (from Jesus' description) that the place of the dead is divided into two compartments separated by a gulf so that those on either side cannot go to the other side. Second, we see that the beggar is taken to the side on which Abraham resides. This side of the place of the dead is a place of comfort. And the name for this portion of the place of the dead (where the righteous) go was "the Bosom of Abraham." As we will soon see, this place of the righteous dead was also known as "Paradise." Third, we see that the rich man goes to the other side of the gulf, which is described as a place of fiery torment." Isn't Jesus (who was a Jew) describing the Jewish underworld as (a) divided into two compartments and (b) with a fiery compartment? If the Jews never believed in a fiery hell, why does Jesus (a Jew) describe their Sheol as having a hell like location? I'm worried it might be because the Jews were wrong and the Son of God was putting them right. -------------------------------------------- A related question Is the punishment for the wicked eternal torment? Revelation 20:10 And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever. Matthew 25: 41 “Then he will say to those on his left, ‘Depart from me, you cursed, into the eternal fire prepared for the devil and his angels. So the wicked are thrown into the same place as the devil, the beast and false prophet, and if the devil, beast and false prophet are tormented forever, doesn’t that mean the wicked will also be tormented forever?
  9. Sorry SDA, I don't understand
  10. Something still seems wrong to me because if they already had eternal life, this verse is redundant. "Now, lest he reach out his hand and take also of the tree of life and eat, and live forever" They had just eaten of the tree of knowledge of good and evil and God was concerned they would eat from the tree of life "and live forever." But if they already had an eternal life as yo say, why did God say we need to stop them eating of the tree of life in case they 'live forever'?
  11. Been thinking about this In Genesis 2:17 God tells Adam and Eve they will die: Genesis 2:17 but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die.” In Genesis 3:22 God is concerned Adam might obtain eternal life (implying he does not already have it): Genesis 3:22 Then the LORD God said, “Behold, the man has become like one of us in knowing good and evil. Now, lest he reach out his hand and take also of the tree of life and eat, and live forever (a) “You shall surely die” Implies Adam and Eve did not have eternal life (b) “and live forever” Implies Adam and Eve did not already possess eternal life If (b) tells us they did not already have eternal life, then (a) cannot be a reference to eternal life being taken away. That being the case, if God did not mean they would literally die that day, what was meant? What am I missing?
  12. A situation where God gives us free will and we would not want to sin
  13. I'm wondering why God could not have put in place another plan for us. God is omnipotent (all powerful) and omniscient (all knowing), so He could have done so. I don't understand why the present situation was chosen when there were any number of situations that might have been chosen.
  14. Thanks for the response SDA After reading your posts I'm still of the same mind concerning the nature of how 'the fall' and how it entered into the world. I believe God is all powerful and all knowing, and this is the root of my issues.
  15. I like to think if God told me not to eat the fruit because if I did, I would die, I would listen. I like to think I would not listen to the serpent. We are born sinners so we are going to sin whether we want to or not. My point is, before the fall, Adam and Eve were not sinners as no sin came into the world at that point, yet they still disobeyed God. How is that? If Adam (or we) had no sin, how does Adam (or us) disobey God?